Criminal Justice Coursework

RESPONSE
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I disagree with the post for one main reason. The reason is through the definition of Sodomy. Sodomy is broadly defined as any sexual intercourse that is not of the form of vaginal/penial intercourse. Sodomy then includes both oral and anal sex. Therefore, by deduction homosexuality is a form of sodomy. However, today’s society has misconstrued sodomy to only refer to “forcible anal sex.” Thus, in the United States, sodomy is a crime in most states because of lack of consent. Although homosexuality is legal in the country, it is still a crime against nature. Thus, just as sodomy is outlawed in most states, homosexuality must also be banned for the mere fact that it is a type of sodomy, thus, unnatural. Therefore, homosexuality should not and cannot be handled separately from sodomy. Thus, if a state legalizes homosexuality, then, it should also go soft on sodomy. However, from a Biblical point of view, homosexuality is condemned as an unnatural and immoral sin. The Bible vies sodomy differently (Larue, 1983). In essence, the word sodomy has not been used in the Bible, but it collectively sums up the Sodom and Gomorrah sexual fantasies in Genesis chapter 19.
On the other hand, I agree with the statement that all crimes are sins, but not all sins are crimes. For example, the Bible terms homosexuality as an unnatural sin, but it is not a crime as far as the legal systems are concerned. Thus, sin and crime might mean the same thing in the Bible but have a different outlook in different societies.

Furthermore, the fact that we have different religion with different sacred books makes it difficult to classify any sexual act as being unnatural or a crime.
References
Larue, G. A. (1983). Sex and the Bible. Prometheus Books.